If the crack cocaine disparity in California is publicly knowledge, why hasn’t it been changed?

Question by Joe B: If the crack cocaine disparity in California is publicly knowledge, why hasn’t it been changed?
I heard when President Obama tried to change it he was told MYOB it’s the individuals state decision and he was told to back off.

I learned about this disparity in class (crim justice major) and I’m wondering if this disparity is such a widely known problem why has there been no resolve over the years?
Excuse the typos didn’t proof read**
What’s the state of California’s stance on why they can create such a disparity and lock up minorities at disproportionate rate to whites? I don’t understand how a legimate explanation can be offered making 5 g’s vs 5’gs of powder equal.
5 grams of crack vs 50 grams of powder rather**
Tougher penalties for crack is basically saying tougher penalties on minorites because they’re the primary users.

The chemical difference between powder and crack are not substantial enough to deem crack much worse the powder. If the penalties need to be strict it should apply to both powder and crack but using only 1 as the example speaks in volumes and has been for years.

Best answer:

Answer by MikeGolf
Because us California voters want stricter penalties for the use of crack. The idea is to limit the number of people who use that drug and (if nothing else) get them to use milder drugs.

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